Dart Firing Stun Gun Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In cases of unexplained deaths involving in-custody subjects who have been tased, bizarre behavior is due to which mental states?
• What is the purpose of a safety switch on a stun device?
• How are the TASER discharge electrodes configured relative to the housing?
• What does CED stand for?
• The decision to use a DFSG requires what kind of reporting?
• Which statement best describes the legal status of stun guns in Florida?
• What is the primary purpose of a Dart Firing Stun Gun in law enforcement or security contexts?
• What does DFSG stand for?
• What is the recommended approach to monitoring a subject after deployment for potential complications?
• What is the recommended practice for re-holstering after an encounter?
• How should the 5-second cycles be applied?
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Electronic Control Device'?
• Which component of a stun gun delivers the electrical pulse to the target?
• How should you handle cartridges when transporting or storing?
• What is gained when pain or involuntary neuromuscular contractions occur, enabling the officer to restrain the subject?
• What is the recommended approach when dealing with individuals with mental health conditions?
• What should be checked during a pre-use inspection of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• The ______ are used to control and restrain, mostly in correctional settings.
• The path of least resistance on a dart-firing stun gun is
• Who invented the stun gun?
• Why is it important to avoid dry-firing or discharging without a proper target?
• What should you do if the device shows a fault indicator during inspection?
• Use of force incidents are judged on whether a reasonable person would believe the officers' actions were justifiable based on the ______ known to officers at the time that they used force.
• The reporting must include which element regarding the use of the DFSG?
• Why is it important to know the device's effective range and limitations?
• The subject may not show physical effects from contact but may sustain injuries from _____ caused by the weapon’s effects on the body.
• A form of psychosis resulting from drug use is called?
• Before deploying a DFSG, what should the officer warn the subject about?
• What condition could cause ignition when a dart-firing stun gun is deployed on a subject?
• Which document outlines the rules and standards for use of a stun gun in many jurisdictions?
• Which statement about device safety and readiness is true?
• Which combination describes the electrical charge delivered by the stun gun?
• Exposing a subject who is standing in water to a dart-firing stun gun does not cause electrocution or increase the power applied to the subject.
• Electricity will not pass to others in contact with the subject unless contact is made directly between or on the probes.
• What should be done if a bystander is accidentally struck by a dart?
• Before deploying a stun device, what environmental factors should be assessed to minimize risk to bystanders?
• What are the marks left on a subject's body after a drive stun application called?
• Which statement correctly describes the roles during DFSG deployment?
• What does NMI stand for?
• The portion of a subject's body that should be targeted for back shots and lower center mass is known as what?
• Which term describes a state of heightened agitation and delirium often seen with stimulant use?
• The basic idea of a stun gun is to disrupt the body's communication system by generating a ___________,___________ electrical charge.
• Which statement best describes the DFSG's role relative to firearms?
• The use of a DFSG in a punitive manner without lawful authority may be violating a citizen's _______
• Why is it important to maintain a log of all uses of a stun device?
• Which medical conditions may require additional caution before using a stun gun? (Variant of safety considerations)
• What is the minimum annual training requirement in hours for the use of a dart-firing stun gun?
• What is the ethical obligation of officers or security personnel when using a stun device?
• When applying force, which approach aligns with the use-of-force continuum?
• The circuitry includes transformers that ______ the voltage and reduce amperage; the boosted voltage typically ranges from ______ volts.
• How long is a cycle?
• Which statute states that it is not a violation to carry, for purposes of lawful self-defense in a concealed manner, a dart-firing stun gun?
• What is released after firing the stun gun that helps investigators identify which gun was fired and at what location?
• Avoid ______ a subject's head, throat, face, breast, chest, or area of the heart, groin, genitals
• Probes removed from the skin should be treated as _______.
• The reporting must include an explanation of what?
• Which case is commonly cited as establishing TASER use law?
• Which of the following best describes the lawful limit on the number of 5-second cycles?
• The subject has a hard time telling his or her muscles to move and may become _______, ______, and _______.
• Electricity tends to flow along which path?
• If an officer decides to use a dart firing stun gun, he or she will be expected to articulate that, based on ______, _____, and _____
• Which acronym stands for 'Conducted Energy Weapon'?
• Which device is about the size of a flashlight, runs on nine-volt batteries, and boosts voltage to 20,000-150,000 volts while reducing amperage?
• The use of a dart-firing stun gun is not a substitute for the use of a _______
• Which statement best describes readiness for use of a stun device?
• What feature do the electrodes have to help them grab clothing?
• Which statement best describes the factors to consider before deploying a stun device?
• What immediate effect does a dart-firing stun gun have on its target's system?
• Which of the following is NOT listed among the mental states associated with bizarre behavior in tased individuals?
• Subjects expecting enforcement encounters may conceal which items under clothing to reduce the device's effectiveness?
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Conducted Energy Device'?
• Is it appropriate to use a stun device on a moving vehicle occupant?
• What type of information should be documented after an incident involving a stun device?
• Which acronym stands for 'Dart Firing Stun Gun'?
• If a subject continues to not comply, and when appropriate, warn of the device's ______.
• Which is a recommended post-incident reporting practice?
• During engagement, what should be done to maintain electrical contact as the subject moves?
• Which items are included in comprehensive training for Dart Firing Stun Gun use?
• Why is verbal de-escalation before deploying a stun device important?
• What environmental or structural hazards could impede safe use of a stun device?
• What is the recommended distance to maintain from a subject when deploying a stun device?
• The first dart-firing stun gun was developed in which year?
• The stun gun was invented in the ______
• What distinguishes cartridge-based stun devices from direct-contact devices?
• If a subject is near water at the time of a DFSG deployment, what is a possible risk?
• In the context of equipment security, what is a primary reason to store stun devices away from unauthorized access?
• Which Florida statute was a response to inconsistent stun gun use statewide?
• Which statement is true regarding injury risk with stun devices?
• Which factor is NOT a consideration when deciding to deploy a stun device?
• The stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when resistance escalates from which to which?
• TASER's name references an early 1900s children's novel by ______
• If the probe spread is very minimal due to a close shot or a drive stun with a live cartridge, what action away from the probes will increase the spread and cause incapacitation?
• What should you do if the device is dropped during deployment?
• The DFSG uses the same mechanism as which common device?
• In what situations is de-escalation preferred over device deployment?
• What are the two small darts connected by wire to the TASER commonly called?
• The dart-firing stun gun is not to be used to ______ a subject to give statements or perform an illegal act.
• What training is typically required to be certified to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• If the officer misses or only one probe hits, what is the recommended next step?
• What should be done if a drive stun is used with close range to ensure incapacitation is achieved?
• The electrodes are fitted with small _____ so that they will grab onto a subject's clothing.
• Who will operate the DFSG?
• Which statute states that a person may openly carry a dartfiring stun gun for purposes of lawful self-defense?
• Which action is NOT a component of post-incident reporting?
• The DFSG design enables greater standoff distance; which two user groups are specified for the longer distances?
• What agencies or bodies may certify stun device training?
• What wattage range is described as a pain compliance tool that does not interfere with the nervous system?
• The court has established law on the use of a TASER in the case of _______
• If the dart firing stun gun gets wet, what should you do?
• How does a stun device differ from pepper spray or baton in deployment considerations?
• What best distinguishes a non-lethal stun device from a firearm in terms of intent and lethality?
• What is the role of medical staff in the aftermath of a stun device deployment?
• Which statement is NOT accurate regarding civilian possession of a stun gun?
• Which factor most directly determines whether a stun device injures a subject?
• How should you store a Dart Firing Stun Gun when not in use?
• Which officer is designated to operate the DFSG during an encounter?
• The dart firing stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when his or her resistance escalates from ______ physical resistance to ______ physical resistance
• What is the primary function of the probes when the stun gun is fired?
• The wider the probes spread on the target, the greater the effectiveness of the weapon.
• What is the recommended approach regarding de-escalation when using a stun device?
• What is the typical time window after custody for unexplained in-custody deaths to occur?
• According to Florida Statutes, you are allowed to decide to use a dart-firing stun gun only when a subject is actively physically resisting; you would not use it for verbal defiance, belligerence, punishment, or horse play.
• Which document best reflects the regulatory basis for stun device use across jurisdictions?
• If a subject is suspected to be under illicit substances affecting coordination, which steps should you take?
• Which action is required for the charge to pass into the subject's body?
• Electricity can arc through clothing and which type of materials?
• What is the role of training in the safe use of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• One of the two most common types of stun guns is a basic model.
• What is a recommended practice to maintain safe distance when deploying a stun device?
• A stun device's current frequency is designed to do what relative to the body's signals?
• What is the overall goal of the stun gun with respect to the body's communication system?
• In this mode, the dart-firing stun gun works as a conventional stun gun and is a pain-compliance tool only.
• Drive stun is intended to produce which effect on the subject when used appropriately?
• _______ is the measure of electrical current or power.
• Why is it important to avoid aiming at the head or neck region when possible?
• The TASER device is shaped like a handgun and uses what to propel its two darts?
• Which of the following indicates how the two darts are delivered from the main unit?
• In the described context, resistance escalates to active when the person has the apparent ability to threaten the officer or escape. Which scenario best describes this context?
• What process helps prevent many physical encounters?
• Which of the following describes the typical immediate state of the subject during stun exposure?
• Which groups are noted to have the greater standoff distance in DFSG design?
• What is the importance of continuous training and re-certification?
• The subject's torso and limbs will contract or extend depending on what?
• Excessive force claims are analyzed under which constitutional amendment?
• In as safe and practical a manner as possible, an officer should attempt to discern if a subject is ______.
• What does SDS stand for?
• What is the term for the predetermined amount of time a stun device will discharge automatically when activated?
• The device affects which body system?
• Which custody procedure is appropriate for individuals subjected to dart-firing stun gun use, even if they are receiving medical care?
• Which officer takes physical control after compliance is achieved?
• EMD stands for electro-muscular disruption. Which body system is primarily affected?
• What is the primary purpose of documenting faults and maintenance actions for a stun device?
• What is a primary safety consideration to minimize bystander risk when aiming a stun device?
• Which factor must be considered when judging whether officers' use of force was justifiable at the time it occurred?
• The charge can pass through what barrier?
• Stun guns operate at ______ currents.
• What is the best approach for handling subjects suffering from psychosis to protect them and others from potential injury?
• Which combination best describes the energy delivered by electronic control devices?
• Which term describes a device that propels electrified darts, probes, or barbs?
• Which condition increases the risk of injury when using a stun device?
• In the event of a deeply embedded probe, which personnel should perform the removal?
• When a stun gun is pressed against a subject and the trigger is held, the charge passes into the subject's body.
• Which statement best describes the proper re-holstering procedure after an encounter?
• Electronic control devices are all generally built using the same principle, which is delivering relatively _______ (amperage and wattage) coupled with ______ to a subject
• The charge will pass through heavy clothing and skin, but the charge is not intense enough to ________ the subject's body unless it is applied for extended periods.
• _______ sites might be the back near the shoulders or the back of the legs where, if clothed, the clothing fits tighter and the probes will conduct electricity to the subject more effectively
• The TASER device propels two small darts using what mechanism?
• An officer should first attempt to gain control of a situation by using ________
• What voltage range is typically produced by the boosted circuitry in stun devices?
• In TASER-style devices, which description matches the discharge electrodes?
• Dart-firing stun weapons can propel darts up to how many feet?
• The brand name TASER is associated with what kind of device?
• What component connects the two darts to the TASER device?
• If only one probe strikes, which function can act as a second probe by completing the circuit?
• When a dart-firing stun gun fires, the probes discharge into the subject. The officer then applies a drive stun away from the probes to achieve what?
• Who will take physical control of the subject?
• What personal protective equipment (PPE) considerations may be relevant during deployment?
• Which environmental factors should be considered before deploying a stun device to reduce slip hazards and ensure stability?
• The reporting adjectives describing the DFSG use should be which pair?
• The TASER device is commonly shaped like a what?
• Which statement best describes safety considerations regarding the line of fire?
• What does ECD stand for?
• Dart firing stun guns are a subtype of which broad category of devices?
• What legal considerations govern possession of a stun gun by civilians?
• Which term describes the broad classification for unexplained in-custody deaths?
• Which of the following is a best practice for post-incident reporting after using a stun device?
• The ideal area of the body for drive stun is what?
• Which statement best describes the role of de-escalation in deciding to deploy a stun device?
• What does EID stand for?
• What does the acronym EMD stand for in this context?
• Which principle guides the use of force to be proportional to the threat?
• Low voltage can injure if the ______ is high enough.
• How many backup officers should be present to handcuff the subject after the officer with the DFSG has gained compliance?
• What is the consequence of failing to report a stun device incident?
• What is the usual discharge duration for a stun device when activated?
• What is the primary purpose of restraint devices in correctional settings?
• Drive stun is described as what type of tool?
• _______ should remove all deeply embedded probes or probes that penetrate sensitive tissue areas (i.e., neck, face, groin, female breast, etc.).
• For a stun gun to operate, electricity must flow between the
• What is the recommended response when a subject refuses commands and appears intoxicated or impaired?
• The most prudent approach may be for the officer to do what?
• Which phrase best captures the objective described for handling suspects safely and practically?
• Which factors influence the decision to deploy a stun device versus retreating?
• This new weapon was called a TASER©, an acronym for _________
• If the subject begins to roll after deployment, which action should the officer take to maintain electrical contact?
• Stun guns and dart-firing stun guns are available for purchase and legal use by which group in Florida?
• Under Florida Statutes, how is a dart firing stun gun categorized?
• The device generally used as a crowd control device for public riots and in correctional settings is the
• Which statement best reflects responsible use of a stun device?
• In which environments should you avoid using a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• How should you manage equipment after training exercises to avoid contamination or misuse?
• What does CEW stand for?
• Name two risk factors that increase the likelihood of injury when a stun device is used.
• Claims that officers used excessive force in the course of an arrest, investigatory stop, or other seizure are analyzed under the ______ objective reasonableness standard.
• What is the purpose of a device's safety features in everyday carry?
• What is the minimum backup presence during DFSG deployment?
• The number of five-second cycles should be limited to which actions?
• When articulating the decision to use a DFSG, the basis should include training, experience, and assessment of the circumstances.
• Removed probes should be treated as ______.
• Which statement best describes the deployment roles?
• How should you assess a subject's physiological state after deployment?
• What information do identification tags convey?
• The quickest and safest way to handle a non-compliant subject exhibiting excited delirium is to _____ and _____, if necessary.
• What should you do if the device experiences a misfire or partial discharge?
• Which principle applies to the use-of-force continuum relevant to stun devices?
• The electrical charge from a stun gun is typically unable to damage the body unless applied for what duration?
• What medical conditions may require additional caution before using a stun gun?
• Which term describes the energy that is used in these devices to produce the electric shock?
• The ______ of a subject's body should be below the neck area for back shots and the lower center mass for the front or large muscle groups such as the back
• Which statement best describes PPE usage during deployment?
• What is the importance of maintaining a safe stance and control when securing a subject after deployment?
• Which of the following is NOT typically required for certification to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• Drive stun occurs when the front of the dart-firing stun gun is directly touched to the body. What term describes this action?
• Which of the following describes an 'Alternative target' site?
• If all efforts to verbally de-escalate the situation are exhausted or are not feasible, the use of a dart-firing stun gun may be ______.
• Which action is NOT recommended when a subject may be under the influence affecting coordination?
• Which statement correctly describes arcing through materials in the context of DFSG use?
• Conventional stun guns use which type of batteries?
• Which acronym stands for a device that immobilizes via electric energy?
• The TASER device uses what to propel two small darts connected by wire to the device?